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May 23, 2017 5:21 AM
(2298 views)

Is it correct to calculate cpk when I have no subgroup in the process data (grouping=1), meaning the sampling is continous, like tablet weight taken one after the other in one lot? How is cpk calculated in this case (the withingroup variation)?

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May 23, 2017 1:00 PM
(4144 views)

Correct? That's a different question. The 'correctness' of an approach is dependent on many aspects to the process capability analysis problem. For example: 1. Does your process data exhibit any evidence of assignable cause variation? 2. Does your data appear to be normally distributed? The answer to these questions influences the approach that is optimal for calculating process capability indices over and above the sheer mathematics associated with the reference in my first reply.

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May 23, 2017 12:56 PM
(2275 views)

Here's a reference for you in the JMP Online Documentation.

http://www.jmp.com/support/help/13/Capability_Analysis_2.shtml#1161749

As of January 2018, use this link:

http://www.jmp.com/support/help/13-2/Capability_Analysis_2.shtml#1161749

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May 23, 2017 1:00 PM
(4145 views)

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May 24, 2017 2:59 AM
(2255 views)

Thank You

Data are normal distributed with no assignable cause variation. I assume the answer I was looking for (found in Process Capability in JMP 2012) is that if I do not group data JMP will automatically use moving range subgroup size 2 to calculate cpk.

KR