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Jan 29, 2013 6:42 AM
(7363 views)

Hi all,

In fitting a Nominal Logistics Regression, JMP models Target=0. I want to model target=1 and get the parametric estimates for the factors.

How can i do this.

I appreciate all your help.

Regards,

Amit Bothra

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Hi Anca,

I found the way to model target=1.

In your data table, right click on the Target column and under column properties there is an option Value Ordering. You need to put the value 1 before 0. This will do the trick.

I appreciate your effort in helping me.

Regards,

Amit

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Re: Model target=1 instead of Target=0 in Nominal Logistic Regression

Hi.

I am not sure if this applies/works in JMP

but there is an option in the

PROC LOGISTIC data = your_data **DESCENDING;**

model y = x1 x2;

run;

** **

Maybe this helps?

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Re: Model target=1 instead of Target=0 in Nominal Logistic Regression

Hi Anca,

Thanks for the reply. In SAS its easy and there are multiple ways.

In JMP its wizard driven, so trying to figure out.

Regards,

Amit Bothra

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Re: Model target=1 instead of Target=0 in Nominal Logistic Regression

Maybe this helps...(as I am completely unfamiliar with JMP)

Here is an extract from :

[...]

For binary responses, the log odds ratio for flipped response levels** involves only changing the sign of the parameter**, so you might want the reciprocal of the reported value to focus on the last response level instead of the first.

[...]

Does this help?

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Hi Anca,

I found the way to model target=1.

In your data table, right click on the Target column and under column properties there is an option Value Ordering. You need to put the value 1 before 0. This will do the trick.

I appreciate your effort in helping me.

Regards,

Amit