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Jan 29, 2013 6:42 AM
(2980 views)

Hi all,

In fitting a Nominal Logistics Regression, JMP models Target=0. I want to model target=1 and get the parametric estimates for the factors.

How can i do this.

I appreciate all your help.

Regards,

Amit Bothra

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Jan 29, 2013 9:13 AM
(5498 views)

Hi Anca,

I found the way to model target=1.

In your data table, right click on the Target column and under column properties there is an option Value Ordering. You need to put the value 1 before 0. This will do the trick.

I appreciate your effort in helping me.

Regards,

Amit

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Jan 29, 2013 7:01 AM
(2873 views)

Hi.

I am not sure if this applies/works in JMP

but there is an option in the

PROC LOGISTIC data = your_data **DESCENDING;**

model y = x1 x2;

run;

** **

Maybe this helps?

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Jan 29, 2013 7:20 AM
(2873 views)

Hi Anca,

Thanks for the reply. In SAS its easy and there are multiple ways.

In JMP its wizard driven, so trying to figure out.

Regards,

Amit Bothra

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Jan 29, 2013 8:36 AM
(2873 views)

Maybe this helps...(as I am completely unfamiliar with JMP)

Here is an extract from :

[...]

For binary responses, the log odds ratio for flipped response levels** involves only changing the sign of the parameter**, so you might want the reciprocal of the reported value to focus on the last response level instead of the first.

[...]

Does this help?

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Jan 29, 2013 9:13 AM
(5499 views)

Hi Anca,

I found the way to model target=1.

In your data table, right click on the Target column and under column properties there is an option Value Ordering. You need to put the value 1 before 0. This will do the trick.

I appreciate your effort in helping me.

Regards,

Amit