Hi MRB3855,
Thanks a lot for your advice!
For z^2 or (z - mean of predicted)^2, I cannot read the paper. However, the example in the 2nd link seems to have mean of predicted = 0. Actually, if you look at the shape of the leverage plot of the with interception case, the confidence interval is the smallest at mean of predicted. Therefore, z^2 must be smallest at mean of predicted and that's why I suspected the z is shifted by mean of predicted (replace z by z - mean of predicted).
For the leverage plot of without interception, I figured out it is tested against y=0 instead of y=mean of y and that's why the confidence interval is narrower as y=0 is very unlikely. I actually think it is OK to test without interception model against y=mean which should give us more meaningful information about whether the model is valid, am I correct?