I just can't figure it out why Nominal regression doesn't show factor A as significant.
If we look at treatment A1 B0 it has the highest success rates for both count and count2.
Interaction A1 B1 has the lowest success rates if we don't include the control A0 B0.
So my intuition says that A1 should me practically significant factor which has the biggest impact. Is my intuition in the right direction?
I may assume that there is not enough sample size for detecting the effect of factor A, but a smaller interaction effect was detected as significant.
So does it mean that factor A doesn't have effect by its own...
That's why I looked at it as 1-factor 4-level, and it supported my assumption that A is significant.
I don't have a degree in Statistics (I am a self learner from a different field) and the results above confuses my mind
Learning DOE