Hi,
l am looking at a study that was performed in R, l have managed to replicate the results of the VCA in R using the following syntax, VisDil1 <- lmer(l2t ~ (1|Op/Day/MDCK) , Dil1), for the following results
Random effects:
Groups Name Variance Std.Dev.
MDCK:(Day:Op) (Intercept) 0.02309 0.15195
Day:Op (Intercept) 0.00861 0.09279
Op (Intercept) 0.00000 0.00000
when i run what i believe is the same model in JMP i get
Random Effect Var Ratio Var Component Pct of Total
MDCK[Day,Op] 0.1904762 0.031746 16.000
Day[Op] 0 0 0.000
Op 0 0 0.000
Residual 0.1666667 84.000
Total 0.1984127 100.000
l used the following script
Fit Model(
Y( :l2t ),
Effects,
Random Effects( :MDCK[:Day, :Op], :Day[:Op], :Op ),
NoBounds( 0 ),
Estimate Only Variance Components( 1 ),
Personality( "Standard Least Squares" ),
Method( "REML" ),
Run Model
);
i looked at this across 8 dilutions, and it is the same result in each dilution, R has a variance component for Day:Op, whilst jmp is combining this effect into it into the effect MDCK[Day,Op], so l feel i am not specifying the model in JMP the same as in R to get the same result.
Does anyone have any advice???
Thanks