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RaggsKing
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Measurement Tool Bias

I have two identical data sets, where close coupled samples were tested using the same test method, but two different gauges.  Gauge A has a 5N range, Gauge B a 100N range. The sample results ranged from .4-1.4N.  My hypothesis was that since the first set of results fit nicely within Gauge A's range, the results using that gauge are "more valid", but the distributions are more normal and the relationship with the primary input of interest is stronger (higher R2 and lower p-value......how would you interpret this result?

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